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Are these two sentence equivalent in their meaning, or is there subtle differences because of where the word who is placed?

  1. No one has come forward who remembers seeing Bill that Monday.

  2. No one who has come forward remembers seeing Bill that Monday.

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Yes - the first states that no witnesses have come forward. The second implies that, though some people have come forward, they don't include anyone with the required information.

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  • No useful (in the immediate context) witnesses. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 21 '20 at 13:51
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In the first sentence people may have come forward: in the second they have.

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Yes. After making the syntactic and semantic analysis, he have that:

First Sentence:

Subject: "No-one who remember seeing Bill that Monday"

Predicate: "has come forward"

Second sentence:

Subject: "No-one who has come forward"

Predicate: "remembers seeing Bill that Monday"

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