With a bit of a surprise I have recently learnt that most(all?) native English speakers pronounce the 's' in dislike (and similar words with the dis- prefix) as /s/, not /z/.
However, the /z/ variant also seems to exist, as a quick Google search by the "dizlike" pronunciation keywords has shown.
One of the links from the above search results leads to the following text from A Pronouncing and Defining Dictionary of the English Language abridged from Webster in 1856:
§ 70. S unmarked has its regular sharp or hissing sound, as in same, gas, mass, &c. § 71. S, when marked thus, $, s, has the sound of z hard, as in has, xoas, &c. Note. — There has been much diversity between orthoepists as to the sound of s in words commencing in dis, as disarm, disburse, &c. Walker laid down this rule: "It (s) ought always to be pronounced like z when unaccented, and followed by an ac- cented flat mute (b, d, g hard, v), a liquid (I, m, n, r), or a vowel." Hence he gave pronunciation like the following, disbud, dizbud; disedify, diz- edify; disjoin, dizjoin; dislike, dizlike; dislodge, <-- dizlike cfelodge, &c. Scarcely any subsequent orthoepist has gone so far. Webster's Dictionary gives s the sound of z in only the following words, viz., dis- arm, disaster, discern, disease, disheir, dishonest, dishonor, dismal, disown, dissolve. The Imperial, Craig, and Wright agree almost to a word with Webster. Perry and Knowles give the z sound even in fewer words ; Smart gives it in about eight more; Jameson and Boag go still further; but, with one or two exceptions, the orthoepists as a body have condemned the extent to which Walker has gone in this respect.
So far, I failed to find any information on (and this is essentially my question:) whether this peculiarity (using the /z/ sound in dislike) can be attributed to a particular region, background or anything of that sort, or is it just some sort of a personal preference?
So I'm asking the community for some help with this matter.
A bit more on what lead me to believe that the 'dizlike' pronunciation exists:
Judging from the initial comments, though, it looks like English speakers strongly disagree with the very possibility of using /z/ in dislike. Other than to mock a foreign accent, I presume.
What would be the explanation of the quoted text, then? (The one provided as an image). Yes, I realise that the date is 1856 - does this mean the /z/ pronunciation existed at that time but completely disappeared by now? Or is it just a dictionary mistake and should be ignored?
Transcriptions of dislike in most popular dictionaries:
Macmillan: NOUN /dɪsˈlaɪk/
Cambridge: UK /dɪˈslaɪk/ US /dɪˈslaɪk/
Merriam-Webster: dis·like | \ (ˌ)dis-ˈlīk , ˈdis-ˌlīk \
Pronunciation examples on Forvo - 5 recordings by native speakers.