0

I am writing a scene from Macbeth detailing the battle before the play for my 11th grade English class, and I decided to write it in Shakespearean for fun. I have been trying to figure out the difference between willst and wilt. Everything, I have found tells me that they are alternating and second singular tense and that is all I have found. Is it anything to the effect of hast and hath? Where hath means has and hast means have?


I could REALLY use some help if someone can give me some, thanks :)

  • This question might be better on one of the English language sites - it's more about grammar than writing. – Rand al'Thor Nov 16 '19 at 22:13
3

"willst" isn't a real word. Don't use it.

"wilt" is an archaic word, used in second person singular. E.g. "I will", "Thou wilt", "He willeth".

"hath means has and hast means have" isn't quite right. Again, they are archaic singular conjugations: "I have", "Though hast", "He hath".

| improve this answer | |

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy