I was struck by PM Johnson's 'neither he nor I are' a few days ago, which seemed to me obviously ungrammatic, and searched this site, where I found this:
where the answer claims that 'neither you nor I is' is 'of course .. totally wrong,' and that it would have to be 'neither you nor I am,' since the verb is closer to 'I' than to 'you.'
I am unconvinced. What are some authoritative sources on this issue? And is there really no authority, grammatic or literary, in support of 'neither you nor I is'?
My sense is that it must be 'neither you nor I is' and 'neither he nor I is.' It seems to me that, regardless of what the pronoun closest to the verb is, the third person ''wins'' when there is conflict, even when the contestants are the 2nd & 1st persons.
(As regards the number of the verb, it seems to me that it must be singular, seeing as what is being denied is a statement about a singular thing, namely that (at least) one of two is something.)
NOTE that my bold-faced question has been implied but neither focused nor answered in the other post.