Which one is correct, if I am talking about something that happened in the past and already ended? This is in the context of having a good friend:

I was lucky to have had one back then


I was lucky I had one back then

Both seem right, so which one would be better in this context?

What would be the different usage for both of the above?

Thank you

  • 1
    I probably wouldn't use either. It sounds much more natural to me to just say Luckily I had one. – FumbleFingers Sep 26 '19 at 12:31
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    They're both correct, and they mean the same thing. The one with the infinitive has fancier syntax, is all. It's the norm to have more than one way to say the same thing. Language has virtually infinite resources, after all. There's always something more to say. – John Lawler Sep 26 '19 at 20:16

"To have had X" is more often used in situations where the subject no longer has X. "I had X" is used in situation where the subject may still have X.

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