I have seen the other questions similar to this topic, but they all explain how the sentence is in present perfect and simple past. My question is, I would like to know why, or what the grammatical reason the use of both the words 'have' and 'had' is correct for the same subject ('it' is the subject here):
"Not only did it have XYZ, it also had ABC."
Note, ABC and XYZ can be swapped and both ABC and XYZ hold true all the time eg, "not only did it have cruise control/automatic windows, it also had automatic windows/cruise control".
What are the grammatical rules allowing this? Note I am not saying it is breaking any rules, rather, I'm asking why don't we say "have" twice, or "had" twice. Thanks