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While writing the following sentence I was curious whether the sentence was correct. But after checking COCA, I came to now that similar expressions are in use. The sentence I wrote is:

Have you heard it used this way?

In COCA I found the following:

I had never heard it described that way.
I use the term and I've heard it used fairly interchangeably.

My question is:

If the part after "it" for example "used this way", "described that way" or "used fairly interchangeably" is the modifier of "it" and as such it is the part of a noun phrase headed by "it". Or if they are the second complement of the verb "hear", the first being "it".

And how to distinguish the two in here?

  • No time to answer, I'm afraid, or do any research. But my intuition tells me it's a catenative complement, although some would doubtless analyse it as the predicate of a verbless clause. I suspect that all verbs of perception can pattern like that:) – Araucaria Jul 1 at 17:49
  • I think the thing being modified is it. – aparente001 Jul 1 at 22:16
  • @Araucaria verbless clause? Is it any here? – Man_From_India Jul 2 at 2:24
  • @Araucaria and one more thing, my thought is not very clear. So want to ask you why it is not q second compliment of the verb "hear" or a post head modifier of "it"? – Man_From_India Jul 2 at 2:38
  • @Man_From_India I don't believe so, but I think some might. – Araucaria Jul 2 at 7:07

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