In an answer to a question I asked, the user included an extract from a text seemingly written in older English. Not Old English, but definitely older English, made evident by the fact it spelled e.g. own and owne.
But another thing I noticed in it was that I was written without capitalization, as in i. I was wondering if this was a typo by the user, a typo by the original author of the writing, or if it was a feature of English at the time of writing.
Considering the user's answer was devoid of any other typos, and considering he probably copypasted the writing onto his post, I didn't believe he had made the potential mistake. If it was a mistake by the author, then, less likely, the user could have included a "[sic]" behind to signalize it was a fault of the original author and not him.
So, this is why I find it circumstantially likely that it was perhaps a feature of older English. Is this the case?
EDIT: I believe it is from early-modern-English. Not sure though, it is for the experts to say.
