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In an answer to a question I asked, the user included an extract from a text seemingly written in older English. Not Old English, but definitely older English, made evident by the fact it spelled e.g. own and owne.

But another thing I noticed in it was that I was written without capitalization, as in i. I was wondering if this was a typo by the user, a typo by the original author of the writing, or if it was a feature of English at the time of writing.

Considering the user's answer was devoid of any other typos, and considering he probably copypasted the writing onto his post, I didn't believe he had made the potential mistake. If it was a mistake by the author, then, less likely, the user could have included a "[sic]" behind to signalize it was a fault of the original author and not him.

So, this is why I find it circumstantially likely that it was perhaps a feature of older English. Is this the case?

EDIT: I believe it is from early-modern-English. Not sure though, it is for the experts to say.

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  • The accepted answer under that question will give you the origin of the capital I in English, along with much more information.
    – Robusto
    Commented Jun 10, 2019 at 20:50
  • Considering that the source material of the extract where the lower-case "I" was in was written in either the sixteenth century of seventeenth century, I guess it was a typo of either the original author, the person putting his work on the internet, or the user who quoted it in his answer.
    – A. Kvåle
    Commented Jun 10, 2019 at 20:56

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