This question arose on the Bible Hermeneutics site regarding Hellenistic Greek but the question is, I would assume, universal and I hoped it could be answered here, with regard to the English language.
Can it be said that the grammar which conveys a particular word actually alters the meaning of that word. And, in particular, can the addition of an article be said, properly, to 'alter' the meaning ?
A particular word may have more than one meaning if it is a homonym. And that homonym may be unambiguous depending on its grammatical context. Are you well ? // The well is deep.
But is it true that the grammar which conveys a word in speech can have sufficient influence to affect the inherent meaning of a word, such that a dictionary definition becomes inaccurate ?
This is a very relevant question in the matter of translation. Can (or should) a word always be translated by a single word ? But if one allows oneself latitude to alter meaning, within different grammatical structures, then why was not a different word chosen in the language being translated ?
And if grammar changes the meaning of words, then is it wrong to insist on dictionary definitions ?
EDIT after comment : the word under discussion in BH was θεος, Theos meaning God, but I don't think that the specific meaning will help. I was looking for a general rule, if there is one.