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I am a university senior for the time being, and I have to make a presentation for the subject "The problem of mood and voice in English grammar" although I know about voice and mood in English grammar, I am unable to figure out what their problems are, moreover, I don't have any ideas about their problems, and don't know whether there is a connection between above the two. Hope you will be able to give me some right ways, thanks in advance.

closed as too broad by Jason Bassford, sumelic, TrevorD, JJJ, Neeku Apr 21 at 20:35

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  • That's difficult to answer. Voice is straightforwardly active or passive, but mood is not really present in English except in the modal auxiliaries and irrealis "were". – BillJ Apr 19 at 9:33
  • A couple of problems with voice in English: a) some people mistakenly think that using passive voice is "wrong" and b) many people, particularly those in (a), don't know what the passive voice is. – user323578 Apr 19 at 10:11
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    The problem with mood is that is traditionally meant to relate to inflections of verbs used to indicate types of modality. English has no such system. It uses multi verb constructions to do this. Some grammars that recognise this problem say that English has periphrastic or analytic moods, terms, however, that can only be applied to clauses, nit verbs. Or for that matter, sentences. – Araucaria Apr 19 at 18:20
  • What if we analysed each one seperately , the problem of voices( how may voices in English grammar?), and the problem of mood in English grammar( how many moods in English grammar?). – Sanjar Igamov Apr 25 at 2:06
  • @SanjarIgamov English has two voices: active and passive. But other than the modal auxiliaries and irrealis "were", it doesn't have mood. – BillJ Apr 25 at 6:23

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