I saw in her eyes the love to me. In her eyes,I saw the love to me.

please tell me do these two sentences have the same meaning? Which is more often said?


From my personal experience, as an American, I would tend to think that "for" is a better (more natural) choice than "to" would be in these example sentences:

Thus, "I saw in her eyes the love for me." or "In her eyes, I saw the love for me."

The two sentences above seem to emphasize slightly different things, but are very similar in meaning and will both be understood.


@A.W. Sourab Mund Aml RegDwigHt,Thanks a lot!


I saw in her eyes the love to me - - - This sentence is more relevant if we take into account the actual definition of "sentence".

New contributor
Sourab Mund is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering. Check out our Code of Conduct.
  • 1
    Both sentences have the same meaning, but neither would be used. There aren't multiple loves in her eyes, so 'the' isn't needed. The love belongs to her, so it is 'her love', and that love does not really move, so it is her love 'for' (or 'of') you. – AmI Mar 15 at 6:31
  • What is "the actual definition of sentence", pray tell? Please specify. – RegDwigнt Mar 15 at 12:48

Your Answer

By clicking "Post Your Answer", you acknowledge that you have read our updated terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy, and that your continued use of the website is subject to these policies.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.