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Is it correct to say "I have proud of having met both of you"

  1. I am proud of having met both of you. (past present?)
  2. I am proud to have met both of you. (present perfect?)

What does the first one say? The word "having" sounds like it is happening, but it was done already. Is it right?

The second one sounds like it happened in the past. Does it mean it is finished? Inconclusive?

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  • "I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
    – psosuna
    Feb 28, 2019 at 19:23
  • @psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
    – user13985
    Mar 1, 2019 at 3:58
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    It's not that it would be grammatically wrong if the sentence were "I have pride of having met both of you." but it is awkward to a native speaker. The usual utterance for this is not to "have pride" because in this sense "pride" is the intangible feeling. Often we use "taking pride" when we refer to a specific event where one feels proud. I would revise this as: "I take pride in having met both of you." Only reason why this isn't an answer is because I'm not sure how to explain this with enough detail apart from it's just not the norm.
    – psosuna
    Mar 1, 2019 at 17:02
  • I have pride of having [buzzer].
    – Lambie
    Nov 15, 2021 at 20:46

2 Answers 2

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Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.

There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.

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"I have proud of having met both of you" is incorrect for two reasons. First, "have" lacks a valid complement. Second, the adjective "proud" does not seem to have any valid function.

Your next two examples (numbered 1 and 2) are both grammatically correct. Both use the perfect aspect ("to have" + past participle), so both indicate that the action happened before the present time.

In the first, the gerund "having" is the object of the preposition "of". In the second, the infinitive "to have" is a dependent of the adjective "proud". You might see it described as an "adverb", "infinitive complement", etc.

The verb "meet" has several meanings, but if you mean that the people were introduced for the first time, then the action can not be ongoing. It is finished.

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  • The complement is the same in both constructions. Why do you think one is lacking?
    – Robusto
    Nov 15, 2021 at 21:04
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    @Robusto "To have" generally requires a complement. It can be a past participle (e.g., "I have gone away."), a direct object (e.g., "I have two brothers."), an infinitive (e.g., "I have to sleep now."), etc. There is nothing in the first sentence ("I have proud of having met both of you") that can reasonably play such a role. Nov 16, 2021 at 22:40
  • @Lambie Thanks, fixed. Nov 16, 2021 at 22:44
  • @MarcInManhattan: In both sentences, met is the complement of the verb have. It doesn't matter that one is in a gerund phrase and the other not.
    – Robusto
    Nov 17, 2021 at 1:10
  • @Robusto Oh, I think that I see why there's some confusion. There are actually three sentences given as examples in the original post: an unnumbered one and then the two numbered sentences. The unnumbered one has two instances of "to have". I agree that the complement of the second instance (which is in gerund form: "having") is "met"; however, the first instance (spelled "have") lacks a valid complement. Nov 18, 2021 at 15:48

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