Is it correct to say "I have proud of having met both of you"

  1. I am proud of having met both of you. (past present?)
  2. I am proud to have met both of you. (present perfect?)

What does the first one say? The word "having" sounds like it is happening, but it was done already. Is it right?

The second one sounds like it happened in the past. Does it mean it is finished? Inconclusive?

  • "I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward. – psosuna Feb 28 '19 at 19:23
  • @psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong? – user13985 Mar 1 '19 at 3:58
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    It's not that it would be grammatically wrong if the sentence were "I have pride of having met both of you." but it is awkward to a native speaker. The usual utterance for this is not to "have pride" because in this sense "pride" is the intangible feeling. Often we use "taking pride" when we refer to a specific event where one feels proud. I would revise this as: "I take pride in having met both of you." Only reason why this isn't an answer is because I'm not sure how to explain this with enough detail apart from it's just not the norm. – psosuna Mar 1 '19 at 17:02

Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.

There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.

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