If the origin is French and the British have adapted it, why would they claim America corrupted the so-called English version if it wasn't theirs to begin with? And why must a simple word like jail appear as goal, misspelled?

closed as unclear what you're asking by sumelic, Chenmunka, jimm101, Cascabel, Mark Beadles Feb 22 at 15:56

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  • As a note, goal and gaol are not the same word—so neither is a misspelling of the other. That would be similar to saying that only one of to, two, and too is spelled correctly, and that the others are misspellings. – Jason Bassford Feb 19 at 8:08
  • Hi Goldie. Your question as stated is a bit unclear and opinion-based. Who is the "they" that is claiming the 'corruption' - do you have a reference for that? – Mark Beadles Feb 22 at 15:56

Like many words in British English Gaol entered the language as part of the aftermath of the Norman Conquest in 1066.

Gaol in British English is derived from the Anglo-Norman French word "Gayole" rather than the Old French " Jailoe".

Oxford Dictionaries

Origin Middle English: based on Latin cavea (see cage). The word came into English in two forms, jaiole from Old French and gayole from Anglo-Norman French gaole (surviving in the spelling gaol), originally pronounced with a hard g, as in goat.

But in Britain you will see both forms used "jail" and "gaol" very few people would claim an Amerucan corruption of the word.

  • For an American "corruption", see hoosegow. – TRomano Feb 19 at 11:10

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