I am wondering which one is more natural and makes more sense.

1) "Good things are for to share"

2) "Good things are for sharing"

which one is correct?


"Good things are for to share" is grammatically wrong (it might have been acceptable four hundred years ago).

Sentence 2 is correct. "Good things are to share" would also be acceptable.


I can't tell you why, but 'for to share' just doesn't sound right. There's a word missing. for what to share.

'for us to share' or 'for everyone to share' would make more sense.

But of the two you're asking, the second is more natural and makes sense. (although may not be what you are trying to express)


The preposition for can take an '-ing' clause, but it can't take a 'to' infinitive clause, except in the archaic construction "for to" = "in order to".

There's no reason or explanation for this that I know of: it just happens to be how current English works.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.