Below is a short passage from Harvard Law Review, Volume 66:

However, with lower courts free to exercise their discretion, there is danger that they may in the same litigation reach opposite conclusions with the result that neither, or perhaps both, actions would be stayed or enjoined.

I am wondering if the writer has made a mistake in using "actions" instead of "action" after "neither". Is it because of "or perhaps both"? As far as I know, "neither" is used before a singular noun.


You have a (small) point. It is small because the meaning is absolutely clear. It is a point because, if that passage were to be read in isolation, then "...neither action, or perhaps both, would be..." would be logically more correct.

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