Here is the specific word I am referring to: The bold numerals in parentheses are under the 2nd definition. https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/just

Are those sub-sub senses? Or are they different parts to a single subsense?

Sorry if this is not an appropriate question for this Stack. It was the only place I could think to ask.

closed as off-topic by Spencer, choster, Jason Bassford, Chenmunka, jimm101 Jan 14 at 12:53

  • This question does not appear to be about English language and usage within the scope defined in the help center.
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • 1
    That's simply distinguishing definition 2.a.1 from definition 2.a.2. They're presumably closely related enough to fall in the same 2.a category, but they still merit separate mention (in the opinion of the lexicographers). – Hot Licks Jan 14 at 1:34
  • They are the third level of a levelled numbering system. They could have chosen to use lower case Roman numerals {i, ii, iii, iv and so on} but chose to use bracketed standard numerals {(1), (2), (3), (4) and so on} instead. If you have a word processor installed try playing with the levelled paragraph numbering facility and you will soon understand what's going on. – BoldBen Jan 14 at 3:32
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is about formatting conventions in a particular dictionary, and not about English language and usage within the scope defined in the help center. – choster Jan 14 at 4:29

According to Merriam-Webster:

Lightface numerals in parentheses indicate a further division of subsenses

As you can see from the page referenced by the example, the "lightface" part of this description is out of date: it is in bold, as you say.

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