I feel that impeded is being used incorrectly in the above sentence but I lack the grammatical knowledge to back up this feeling. Would this be a better way to say it:

"Y impeded X"*

A commenter pointed out that it might just be a case of active vs passive voice. If that is the case, then should it be

"X is impeded by Y"

instead of

"X is impeded due to Y"?

Edited for clarity as mods pointed out.

  • Could you link to the example and/or the dictionary definition? It'd help answerers to know what dictionary you're using. – TaliesinMerlin Jan 11 at 19:56
  • 1
    It looks like you've just changed the sentence from passive to active, that is, from "X is impeded by Y" to "Y impedes X." Both of those are correct. – Juhasz Jan 11 at 20:02
  • @Juhasz, I agree with you. I wasn't entirely sure if the passive form used here might be better phrased as you said "X is impeded by Y" instead of "X is impeded due to Y" – schanana Jan 11 at 20:06
  • If you're asking about due to instead of by, you need to make that crystal clear within the text of your question. – Andrew Leach Jan 11 at 20:06
  • @AndrewLeach, I apologize for the confusion. In the above comment, I meant that I agreed that it might just be passive vs active voice instead of a question of the improper usage of the word impede itself but I'm not sure of which one it is. If it is a case of passive vs active voice, then I think maybe it is a question of "due" vs "by" but again, I'm not sure if that is the case. I apologize if that did not come across in my comment. – schanana Jan 11 at 20:13

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