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Is " Long time no see " Grammatically correct ?

So I use to talk to native English speakers and they use it usually so I want to make sure if it's grammatically correct ? or " I haven't seen you for a long time " should be used instead ?

marked as duplicate by Janus Bahs Jacquet, Jason Bassford, choster, Rand al'Thor, Rory Alsop Jan 3 at 19:26

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    It's a fixed phrase. They are not subject to the usual rules of grammar because they constitute a fixed meaning in frozen form. It's an attempt to emulate Chinese pidgin (don't ask me why), and you already know what it means. Just don't assume it's normal English. – John Lawler Dec 29 '18 at 20:00
  • @JohnLawler Yup , I already know what does it mean , but no idea if it's grammatically wrong or not , on another question , is it ok to use it with formal conversation or with high class people into " Work , new people and so on ? " – Mohammed Rizqallah Dec 29 '18 at 20:14
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    It's suitable for an intimate relationship, in which friends understand each other no matter how they speak. It already assumes the speaker has known the addressee for a long time and is glad to be reunited; leaving out words is a mark of familiarity and intimacy. It is definitely not formal, though it could be used between old friends in any context. – John Lawler Dec 29 '18 at 20:28
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    If native speakers usually use it, why are you doubting whether it’s grammatical? Common usage by (enough) native speakers is what makes something grammatical to begin with. That doesn’t mean it’s always appropriate, but context and register are a different matter from grammaticality. As an extreme example, ‘fuck you’ is perfectly grammatical, but I would strongly advise against using it in nearly all situations. – Janus Bahs Jacquet Dec 29 '18 at 20:55
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    No, it is NOT "grammatically correct". That's precisely the source of its charm. – michael.hor257k Dec 29 '18 at 21:03
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In a com­ment, John Law­ler wrote:

It’s a fixed phrase. They are not sub­ject to the usual rules of gram­mar be­cause they con­sti­tute a fixed mean­ing in frozen form. It’s an at­tempt to em­u­late Chi­nese pid­gin (don’t ask me why), and you al­ready know what it means. Just don’t as­sume it’s nor­mal English.

And:

It’s suit­able for an in­ti­mate re­la­tion­ship, in which friends un­der­stand each other no mat­ter how they speak. It al­ready as­sumes the speaker has known the ad­dressee for a long time and is glad to be re­united; leav­ing out words is a mark of fa­mil­iar­ity and in­ti­macy. It is def­i­nitely not for­mal, though it could be used be­tween old friends in any con­text.

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So I talk to native English speakers and they use 'long time no see'. I want to make sure it's grammatically correct?

It is correct, listed as an idiom in TFD, and its use is informal.

Or should I use "I haven't seen you for a long time"?

‘Long Time, No See’ Is Considered Offensive, Non-Inclusive Language at Colorado State University so depending on context and circumstances, your alternative sentence may be appropriate.

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    I can't imagine a circumstance in which "Long time, no see" would, absent special circumstances, be offensive language. – Robusto Dec 29 '18 at 20:50
  • judged by some as an affront to either asians, the asian root of the phrase , or both in the pc culture of America, especially academia. – lbf Dec 29 '18 at 22:23
  • Then they’re looking for things to be offended about, because whatever pidgin associations it may have had surely must by now have been thoroughly bleached out of it. Ask ten people on the street for the origin and you’ll get ten different answers, none of them “pidgin.” – Robusto Dec 29 '18 at 22:51

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