In the following article, the underlined 'did' refers to the word 'mature' in the same sentence. But, how about the word 'reach' in the previous sentence? Is it ok to say the word 'did' can also be replaced with 'reach' for having the similar meaning in the context?enter image description here

  • Hi. First, you might want to check the dictionary definition of reach - see the second listed verbal sense here. Questions here are expected to demonstrate some research effort on the asker's part, not least as that research can help potential answerers. Take a look at how to ask. Also consider if your question might be better suited to English Language Learners - generally, if a question would be trivial to a native speaker, that's a better place to go.
    – tmgr
    Dec 14, 2018 at 10:11
  • Avoid saying “the below X” because this can sound stilted and even borderline unnatural to native speakers. Instead say “the following X” in especially formal written contexts, or merely this X” in the singular or these Xes” in the plural in many common and less exacting circumstances. Sometimes English-language learners don’t realize that they should use the demonstrative determiners this, that, these, those which native speakers customarily use for these cases.
    – tchrist
    Jan 25, 2020 at 17:38
  • Please do not post text as graphics. It discriminates against those using screen readers, and cannot be indexed.
    – David
    Jan 25, 2020 at 21:40

1 Answer 1


The verb did substitutes for the main verb in the same sentence (mature). Did can't substitute for a verb of the previous sentence (for example, reach in the sentence from the answer) unless it is used immediately after the full stop before another verb.
For example:

"I saw Ann yesterday."
"So did I. She looked a bit frustrated."
"Did she?"

  • Thanks a lot for the clear explanation. I got a big help. :) Dec 14, 2018 at 7:58

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