1

Consider the sentence

You don't need to patronize me.

To patronize is an infinitive. But I can't understand why use of me is right. Is it the object of the infinitive or of the need verb? Can an infinitive phrase have its own object?

  • "To patronize is an infinitive." -- says who? – Kris Dec 6 '18 at 11:17
  • What is it then. – Manish Kumar Balayan Dec 6 '18 at 11:17
  • 1
    Welcome to ELU. Please visit the sister site English Language Learners Good Luck. – Kris Dec 6 '18 at 11:19
  • 2
    You will find helpful and interesting posts there. This is for advanced questions about the English language and its usage. – Kris Dec 6 '18 at 11:21
  • 1
    Yes, an infinitive verb can take an object. – Colin Fine Dec 6 '18 at 11:39

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.