Consider the sentence

You don't need to patronize me.

To patronize is an infinitive. But I can't understand why use of me is right. Is it the object of the infinitive or of the need verb? Can an infinitive phrase have its own object?

  • "To patronize is an infinitive." -- says who? – Kris Dec 6 '18 at 11:17
  • What is it then. – Manish Kumar Balayan Dec 6 '18 at 11:17
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    Welcome to ELU. Please visit the sister site English Language Learners Good Luck. – Kris Dec 6 '18 at 11:19
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    You will find helpful and interesting posts there. This is for advanced questions about the English language and its usage. – Kris Dec 6 '18 at 11:21
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    Yes, an infinitive verb can take an object. – Colin Fine Dec 6 '18 at 11:39

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