She is being mistreated. She has been being mistreated for five years.

Is the second sentence grammatically correct? Or should the being been be contracted to just been? I. e. She has been mistreated for five years.

She was mistreated. She has been mistreated.

If so, how to disambiguate it from the above formation? The original has a progressive connotation, and the one right above is simple.

I came up with the second sentence by converting was to had been and leaving the being as is. That's because that's what I do with sentences such as She is eating -> She has been eating (I leave the eating as is).


For the convenience of learners, it is to be remembered , that passive voice has only one verb , i.e. "TO BE". Let us conjugate it like this:He is/ He is being/ He has been/ He has been being/ He was/He was being. . . So on and so forth.

In whatever form the MAIN VERB is in active voice with whatever inflections ('s/-ing/ ed/en/ or internal change) it would invariably be changed to V3 or past participle form. The main verb in passive voice is acted upon, for convenience, better call it an adjective.

  • Some one is mistreating her.

  • Someone has been mistreating her for five years.

Conversation of these two would give us the first two sentences. However, what you want to mean is essentially yours. The rules are enumerated for your convenience, this much!

| improve this answer | |

Both Being and Been are verbs for 'to be'. the problem is having two in one sentence. Has been means she was mistreated. Is being means she is currently being mistreated, that is Now.

| improve this answer | |

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.