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Question in title.

Example:

"I am rich", said the person who is not rich.

or

"I am rich", said by the person who is not rich.

which one is correct?

  • Are these both phrases you've encountered "in the wild"? There are certain occasions where you might use #2, but it would usually be considered ungrammatical. It's sometimes helpful to explain what point of grammar you're not certain about, and what your thoughts are on it so far, so we know we're giving a helpful answer. – Alan T. Oct 31 '18 at 11:59
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These uses are both correct, with different meanings.

  • "I am rich", said the person who is not rich.

    This usage is deliberately evoking narrative style (“ “Roses are red”, said the child”). This effect means to imply that there is an objective, narrative fact about the person (“… is not rich”) which, when known, should cause us to appreciate the irony of that person saying what they said.

  • "I am rich", said by the person who is not rich.

    This usage is broader, and does not deliberately evoke a narrative style. It is merely giving more information about the utterance: telling us who said it.

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