I consider, "I like having," to be the reciprocal action of, "I like giving," which stands alone on its own without much confusion. In, "I like giving," it is implied that there is some object, wealth, knowledge, etc that is given without having to define it. Can it also work that one can like "having" implicitly in a broad sense without there being a concrete object in one's possession?
closed as unclear what you're asking by Kris, Skooba, Roaring Fish, Rory Alsop, Azor Ahai Nov 4 '18 at 19:42
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Yes, that's fine. The OED records an intransitive meaning for the verb have:
b. intransitive. To possess something (as opposed to possessing nothing); esp. to be wealthy.
Some examples of usage:
1838 M. F. Tupper Proverbial Philos. (ed. 2) 228 So shall thou walk in peace, deserving, if not having.
1845 Eclectic Mag. July 380/1 The great inequality…between the rich and poor, between the numbers of those who
have and those who have not.
1937 E. Hemingway (title) To have and have not.
2007 E. Charles Daughters of Doge (2008) 144 There is a very wide gap between those who have and those who