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I have been asked to translate a contract, where the parties are defined accordingly:

"X with its principal place of business at Y, (hereinafter called "Seller") specifically deemed and understood in this document as the "Seller", and Z (hereinafter called "Buyer") specifically deemed and understood in this document as the "Buyer"."

To me, the definition in parentheses (hereinafter called "Seller") seems to have exactly the same meaning as the definition after it (specifically deemed and understood in this document as the "Seller"). Can anyone explain what is the function of the latter definition? Does the phrase "specifically deemed and understood" have a legalese function I just don't understand as a non-native speaker?

closed as off-topic by Kris, Chenmunka, choster, Skooba, jimm101 Oct 25 '18 at 13:10

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  • Nothing legalese -- just look up the words in a good dictionary. Good Luck. – Kris Oct 24 '18 at 8:13
  • If it does have a legalese meaning you would need to consult a legal professional. Even if we are experts at EL&U that does not mean we know how that applies in a legal sense. – Skooba Oct 25 '18 at 12:57
  • I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because this is specifically relevant to legal writing, and usage outside the law may not be relevant. What is relevant is peculiarities in legal writing, which are known not to match normal EL&U. – jimm101 Oct 25 '18 at 13:10
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Here, the word 'deemed' basically refers to how a certain thing was perceived and considered. The legal lingo simply makes the case over-obvious so that there is no (or minimal) possibility of misunderstanding. You were right. It doesn't add anything critical or extra to your current understanding of the sentence.

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