This sentence sounds a bit odd to me; however I believe it's grammatically correct. Could you please corroborate for me. Sentence: "She has been slandering me/her/him"

  • Try googling it and see if anyone (in a reputable source, or at least one you personally trust on these matters) has put it this way. – Dan Bron Oct 18 '18 at 19:10

"To slander" is the verb. As a transitive verb, it takes an object (in this case, "me"). "has been slandering" is the correct formation of the present perfect progressive tense for the third person ("she").

So: Yes, it is correct.

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