0

I am a little confused about these two questions, please help me!

  • Can we use: "in the first half of one's 40s" to talk about the age from 40 to 45 of somebody.

  • Can we use in their early 40s to express a person's age from 40-45?

Thank you so much!

1 Answer 1

3

Typically, if one uses the term "early forties" (40-43), it is as opposed to "middle (or mid-) forties" (44-46) and "late forties" (47-49).

2
  • 1
    Absolutely right in terms of how we subdivide a decade of someone's life (where My Dad's in the first half of his eighties just sounds weird). But it doesn't sound at all strange to me to encounter the first half of the 80s in reference to a historical decade. Which has apparently been written thousands of times. Oct 6, 2018 at 17:57
  • 1
    Thank you Liz and @FumbleFingers , yes, I actually entounter "the first half of the 80s" zillion times, but don't know for sure that if it sounds natural or not in the case in which we refer to someone's age. Thanks so much. Have nice days!
    – Tinh Le
    Oct 7, 2018 at 0:40

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.