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I was reading a newspaper article and found -- what I believe is -- a mix of American and British conventions when it comes to punctuation. (I'm an engineer by trade, not a linguist.) I'd expect you to pick one convention or the other and be consistent.

Is there a reason behind this 'inconsistency'?

After all, most of us have one and a half to two hours REM sleep a night – the phase in which dreams mostly occur – yet “we remember a very small fraction of our dreams”. Regarding his near-drowning experience, he says he has “little to no idea what the ‘purpose’ of that dream was in terms of underlying neuronal activity – but I can certainly tell you the clear message that it left me. Do not take your most cherished things in life for granted and do take the time to savour and love all that is important to you.” This particular dream, he says, “pushed me into taking a step back”.

He also believes that “sleep is very important to consolidating memories and even learning new skills”, whether emotional, cognitive or even physical. (...)

After all, even Blagrove, who is not convinced of the function of dreams, believes in their usefulness. “We are producing a whole complicated film while we sleep,” he says. (...)

source: https://www.theguardian.com/lifeandstyle/2018/oct/03/night-terrors-what-do-anxiety-dreams-mean (bold is mine)

Related (but doesn't answer the question, unless I missed something):

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    I can think of no reason. It's just sloppy. It's not even just inconsistently applying US and UK punctuation styles—the period outside the quotation mark at the end of the first paragraph is wrong according to both common styles. – Jason Bassford Supports Monica Oct 6 '18 at 16:28

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