So there is this question about the pronunciation of the noun possessive inflection.
A certain text states that a zero allomorph is used by certain American English speakers for the noun possessive morpheme.
It says that that the [z] sound of the possessive suffix and the first consonant of the book create a situation in which possessive morpheme "may not be pronounced".
This is the quote from a text:
Some speakers of American English have a zero allomorph of the possessive morpheme. They may indicate possession either by using the {-s2} versions we have noted or simply by juxtaposing the two nouns involved, as in Have you seen Mary book? As in the case of the zero allomorph of the present- and past-tense morphemes (in which John watches TV and John watched TV may be pronounced the same as John watch TV), the zero allomorph of the possessive tends to occur where two or more consonants come together. In Mary’s book, the [z] sound of the possessive suffix and initial consonant of book create the environment in which the possessive morpheme may not be pronounced. Such a pronunciation pattern is one of the many minor ways in which one dialect of English may differ from another without affecting meaning. Teachers of children who routinely use the zero allomorph of the possessive (Mary book) in speech may have to help them to become conscious of the correct _spelling- of the possessive, for they are likely, at least initially, to write possessive nouns as they pronounce them.
Analyzing English Grammar by Thomas P. Klammer, Muriel R. Schulz, Angela Della Volpe
Thanks.