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I wanna know that this sentence is grammatically correct or not:

In used as ’disagreement ’, ’dispute’ and ’debate’ have almost the same meaning.

Thanks.

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    If you have read this sentence somewhere, it could be a misprint for "If used as...", meaning that the two words have a similar meaning when they are used to mean 'disagreement'. Commented Sep 21, 2018 at 16:12

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This is not grammatically correct.

Deconstructing the sentence:

’disagreement ’, ’dispute’ and ’debate’ have almost the same meaning.

This is grammatically correct, although you could include an Oxford comma.

used as ’disagreement ’, ’dispute’ and ’debate’ have almost the same meaning.

This is also correct. I wouldn't include an Oxford comma in this instance.

In used as ’disagreement ’, ’dispute’ and ’debate’ have almost the same meaning.

Now, it's pretty obvious where the problem is coming from – you generally can't follow an introductory preposition like "in" with a past-tense verb like "used." Here's another explanation/example of this type of misuse:

Prepositions must always be followed by a noun or pronoun. That noun is called the object of the preposition. A verb can't be the object of a preposition.

"The bone was for the dog." This is correct- the preposition for is followed by the noun "dog."

"The bone was for walked." This is not correct. The preposition for is followed by a verb "walked." Walked can't be the object of a preposition.

You can easily resolve this type of erroneous sentence by converting the inappropriate preposition into an appropriate adverb:

When used as 'disagreement,' 'dispute' and 'debate' have almost the same meaning.

You can also sometimes resolve these sentences by using a gerund form of your verb as a noun, although I find this to be more awkward than beginning with an adverb:

In [using/this use of] ’disagreement ’, ’dispute’ and ’debate’ have almost the same meaning.

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