Jacob Rees-Mogg MP, speaking by the invitation of the Speaker of the House of Commons in a lecture regarding Brexit, quoted a Financial Times article and, in passing, 'corrected' its grammar.
Quoting the article, Rees-Mogg said of entries on a Wikipedia list (of entries in a table) that 'none are' from Europe and then corrected the article saying that it should be 'none is'.
'None' may refer to 'not one' in which case I would say it is singular. But 'none' may also refer to 'not any' in which case I would suggest it is plural.
Thus I think that Mr Rees-Mogg is not correct in correcting the FT article.
'None of the entries' (that is, not any of the entries) are from Europe' seems quite correct to me.
'Not one of the entries is from Europe' is also correct, I would say.
Is Mr Rees-Mogg correct ?
OED entry for 'none' :
a. Not any (one) of a number of people or things. Also: neither of two persons or things (now regional).
EDIT : I have read the suggested duplicates and they are inconclusive. I was hoping for a definitive (and thus an academic), decisive answer to the question.