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Many countries have "land" in the end of it. like England, Poland, Switzerland, etc. which means the land of the English, the land of the Swiss, etc.

Many other countries have "stan" in the end of it like Turkmenistan, Kazakhstan , Afghanistan, etc. stan means land in their language, it become the the land of the Kazakh, the land of the Turkmen, etc.

My question is about "-ia". Many counties have "-ia" in the end, like Australia, Serbia, Nigeria, Croatia, Russia, Tunisia and many many more. I'm not sure where that come from or if it has any meaning?

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    Be careful of the word "Paki" - it can be regarded as offensive in the wrong circumstances. – Andrew Grimm Jun 22 '18 at 3:29
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    Oh, didn't know that, shall I remove it from the question? – asmgx Jun 22 '18 at 3:31
  • @asmgx: Pakistan means "land of the pure". Please edit your body of question. – Ahmed Jun 22 '18 at 4:08
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    @IqbalAhmedSiyal to avoid confusion I changed Pakistan example to Turkmenistan, people who will read the questions won't know the land of the pure refers to which country unless they speak that language – asmgx Jun 22 '18 at 4:18
  • @asmgx: it's better. – Ahmed Jun 22 '18 at 4:20
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-ia is a Latin ending (-ία in Ancient Greek) used to form abstract nouns. In this case, the "abstract" noun referred to a nation, that is, a collection of people and the locations where they lived. For example, the land of the Germani was Germania.

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    Almost certainly not, #mweiss. – tautophile Jun 22 '18 at 6:54
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    Russian actually still uses "Germania" – htmlcoderexe Jun 22 '18 at 10:03
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    Is -ia cognate somehow with the Arabic suffix -iyya/ ـِيَّة‎? – Wilson Jun 22 '18 at 11:28
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    In Italy (Italia, btw) we use it extensively. adding to those the OP listed, there are Francia, Germania, Spagna (>Hispania), Grecia etc. – LinuxBlanket Jun 22 '18 at 12:19
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    @Wilson To expand on what Chris said, Arabic and Hebrew are both of the Semitic branch of the Afro-Asiatic language family, and Latin and Greek are both Indo-European languages, which are about as unrelated as you can get; no relationship between those two language families is known, and if there is one, it's far enough in the past that we can't trace any cognates. – Hearth Jun 22 '18 at 21:20

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