Is saying x is 2 greater than y (meaning x is greater than y by 2) acceptable?

  • I never saw it and I wouldn't know how to interpret it. – myradio Jun 20 '18 at 7:51
  • 2
    Yes, they are just different ways of expressing the same thing. (In fact, I would prefer the first version to the second—but there's no semantic difference.) – Jason Bassford Jun 20 '18 at 8:30
  • @probably prefer the second when it comes to phonetics. The 2 in the first example is a homophone of too. – JJJ Jun 20 '18 at 8:32
  • "x is 2 more than y" -- I've not come across *is n greater than ... * in formal writing. – Kris Jun 20 '18 at 9:43
  • Sorry, that seems to be but in fact isn't at all to do with Engish. Could you take that Question to a maths page? – Robbie Goodwin Jun 22 '18 at 19:30

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