So I have seen usages of "Your will be done" in the context when some higher authority is issuing orders but shouldn't it be "Your will will be done"? it makes more semantic sense than the former.
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2Possible duplicate of What is the grammar behind "Thanks be to God"?– Edwin AshworthCommented Jun 17, 2018 at 15:24
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1@Fred Hockney Not according to answers at wordreference.com. And not according to Berk - English syntax: from word to discourse - 1999: << Formulaic subjunctive. English has a small set of phrases and sayings that are so old that they still contain uniquely marked subjunctive verbs. These utterances are learned as whole pieces, often as part of religious liturgy. The expression God bless you contains a third person subject and an uninflected verb. This ...– Edwin AshworthCommented Jun 17, 2018 at 22:40
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2sentence is communicating, not a statement of fact, i.e., 'God blesses you', but rather a wish on the part of the speaker, i.e., 'I hope that God blesses you'. Some remnants of the formulaic subjunctive in Judeo-Christian liturgy are: The Lord make his face shine upon thee ... Thy kingdom come, thy will be done ...}– Edwin AshworthCommented Jun 17, 2018 at 22:40
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1Yeah, @EdwinAshworth is right. Perseus ticked the wrong answer too quickly.– llyCommented Jun 18, 2018 at 2:02
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1Sorry for the late response, I want to know whether the usage is correct in modern English. For eg: if Person A (of some high authority) says "Capture him", will the response "Your will be done" appropriate?– Perseus14Commented Jun 18, 2018 at 7:34
3 Answers
Like Mr Beadles said, the 'will' here is a noun.
It's not an imperative, though, which would be a command to an implied you to perform the action of the verb. What is actually going on is that it is a jussive (1st or 3rd person command or exhortation or requests in prayer) or optative (hope/wish), which English—apparently along with the rest of the Germanic descendants of PIE—expresses as a form of the subjunctive mood.
Similar to 'thanks be to G-d' or 'G-d be praised', what is being said is
[Let] your will be done.
or
[It is my hope that] your will be done.
It's an oldish feeling expression (archaism) but, when it shows up (except in the Lord's Prayer), it's usually in response to a superior's command. It's not telling the superior or underlings to do anything, but acknowledging that the speaker assents to the order and will do his or her utmost to carry it out.
See also:
- WordReference: Thy will be done...
- Back of the Cereal Box: A Grammatical Question from G-d Himself, which notes that the Biblical passage is translating a Koine Greek aortist subjunctive
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1Yes, there is a difference in meaning between the two. "Your will be done" is a wish - "I want your will to be done". "Your will will be done" is a prediction - "I expect your wishes will be done" or "I am certain your wishes will be done" . In the second case, the speaker might prefer if the other's will was not done. Commented Jun 18, 2018 at 4:31
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1"Your will will be done" is clumsy and I think I have never seen anyone use that phraseology. Commented Jun 18, 2018 at 4:33
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1"Your will will be done" could even be a subtle putdown - "all your other flunkies will do this stupid thing no matter how dumb I think it is" or "don't blame me when your flunkies implement this stupid thing". Commented Jun 18, 2018 at 4:34
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Fwiw, @ConcreteGannet is completely right about what 'yer will'll be done' would mean if anyone said that. Since they don't, I left off that part.– llyCommented Jun 18, 2018 at 8:11
The 'will' in "Your will be done" is a noun.
And the 'be' is the imperative form of the verb 'to be'.
So, taken together, "Your will be done" means "May your intention be carried out".
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8I've always read this as if it had the implied imperative "let" at the beginning: Let your will be done.– hBy2PyCommented Jun 17, 2018 at 17:13
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1@FredHockney That is true in Latin & Greek, but English doesn't really have a 'present passive imperative' Commented Jun 17, 2018 at 18:41
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2I knew all those years studying Greek would be a problem one of these days ... You are right that we really don't have one per se, but this sentence is certainly not active. As @hBy2Py pointed out, if you read the sentence with the implied 'Let' then it does become passive (or at least one of the ways we can express passive in English). Since it is an archaic form, I see no reason not to call it 'passive' so as not to be confused with 'active', which it can not be.– user256514Commented Jun 17, 2018 at 18:48
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1I always thought the "be" was the subjunctive mood, similiar to saying "may he do well". And then reading it as [May] your will be done, same as @Arp Commented Jun 18, 2018 at 0:43
Will and will are two different, unrelated words. The fact the spelling is the same has no relevance to grammar or semantics.
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It will rain tomorrow. Means I desire it to rain tomorrow? No that isn't right at all.– aaa90210Commented Jun 22, 2018 at 11:45
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Originally? literally? Yes. It's morphed into extended senses including facilitating an impersonal auxiliary of future occurrence. But it's the same word, different senses having come to predominate its use as different parts of speech.– llyCommented Jun 22, 2018 at 13:38