I know this verb does not take "to" after the direct object. Although, I spot T.L. Short in his "Peirce's Theory of Signs" always inserting "to" in this construction. What happens? Is it some formal-style feature or something idiosynctratic? Is there something inaccurate with the rule instead?
For example:
But Peirce supposed that the argument for realism (the underlying argument that he discerned, and not an argument found in his Scholastic sources) denies the existence of anything not general and that the argument for nominalism (again, one he discerned) makes the individual to be the cause, external to experience, of those sensations that make up experience.
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It also makes the real to be independent of what you or I think about it, which allows for there to be real thoughts, dreams, mistakes, and so on, that is, things that are not independent of what is thought.
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Those are the three problems with Peirce’s early semeiotic: it makes the object signified to disappear; it makes significance to be arbitrary; and it fails to tell us what significance is.