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I came across a question in which I'm a little confused.
1)she blamed us for the dispute, especially you and me.
2)she has blamed us for the dispute, especially you and me.
3)she blamed us for the dispute, especially you and I.
4)she had blamed us for the dispute, especially you and I.
Well, you have presented two questions here that need to be addressed separately, I think.
First, the verb tenses are all grammatically correct. So, unless you provide context, we have no way of knowing which is the most suitable for the meaning you wish to express. For example, 2 and 4 can be easily clarified with an adverb of time or additional information.
2) She has always blamed us for the dispute, especially you and me.
4) She had blamed us for the dispute, especially you and I, but she's changed her mind now that she's spoken to Robert.
As for whether it should be "you and me" or "you and I," strictly speaking I think "you and me" is correct, since this is an indirect object of the verb to blame. But there are plenty of people who would say "you and I" in conversation.
As previously noted, all the predicates are correct: blamed: simple past; has blamed: present perfect; had blamed: past perfect
In all the sentences "us" is the direct object, and so takes the objective form of the plural pronoun. "Especially you and me" is correct because the it stands in apposition (a grammatical construction in which adjacent nouns stand in the same syntactical relation to the rest of the sentence, MW) to "us." "You and me" are object pronouns and are equivalent to "us." The sentence could have been written "She blamed {especially) you and me for the dispute."
Number 3 is correct. The past tense of "blamed" makes the use of "had" redundant.
