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I remember my English teacher telling me that South of India, for example, is the area to the south of India, which would be Sri Lanka. Was she mistaken in her understanding?

Or is the south of France phrase a aberration? Where only in that context it is understood to mean an area in France, while in other contexts the meaning would be similar to the first example?

closed as off-topic by JJJ, Phil Sweet, Mari-Lou A, jimm101, curiousdannii Apr 20 '18 at 11:58

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  • buzzfeed.com/chelseypippin/… – Robusto Mar 2 '18 at 4:02
  • Please quote the complete sentence, along with its immediate context. In fact, the original sentence can answer your question quite easily. (The source url is given by Robusto above). – Kris Mar 2 '18 at 7:08
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"South of India" (with a lower-case initial "s" except when there's some reason to use a capital) means in a place reached by travelling southward from India to somewhere else.

But the south of India, with a definite article, means the southern part of India.

Thus the Maldives are south of India, but Kerala is in the south of India.

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