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I have been studying Peter Master's 2003 paper regarding null and zero articles and I am still not clear if he is saying that this is a peculiarity of English or if he is saying that this is a conceptual matter and that it will be apparent in all languages.

I ask this particularly as the matter of absent articles is something I meet with in Greek which has no indefinite article and is very generous with the definite. When the Greek article is missing, therefore, it is often quite a significant matter.

closed as off-topic by Araucaria, Peter Taylor, curiousdannii, Xanne, MikeRoger Oct 19 '17 at 9:13

  • This question does not appear to be about English language and usage within the scope defined in the help center.
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  • We know it’s more than just English. I have no idea whether all languages have it. It seems reasonable to assume that some language somewhere handles it differently. – Jim Oct 18 '17 at 5:42
  • I could invent one that doesn’t... – Jim Oct 18 '17 at 5:43
  • @Jim How would you invent one that doesn't ? If it is an underlying concept of all language, I mean. – Nigel J Oct 18 '17 at 5:45
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    This question would fare better (and get better answers) on Linguistics SE. Can we migrate it there? – Araucaria Oct 18 '17 at 12:55
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because this is a question about every language which isn't English, not a question about English. – Peter Taylor Oct 18 '17 at 15:47