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Is this clause 'it's met with utter confusion' the passive or present perfect?

Have you ever talked with a friend about a problem, only to realize that they just don’t seem to grasp why the issue is so important to you? Have you ever presented an idea to a group, and it’s met with utter confusion? Or maybe you’ve been in an argument when the other person suddenly accuses you of not listening to what they’re saying at all? What’s going on here?

http://blog.ed.ted.com/2016/03/31/how-to-avoid-miscommunication-in-ted-ed-gifs/

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    That depends on whether it's means it has or it is. This is a good example of a situation where contraction is not helpful.
    – John Lawler
    Oct 8, 2017 at 0:49
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    Hello, Lifeispicnic (are you serious?) The << it's >> used here may be the 'it is' or the 'it has' contraction. This has been covered here before. //// 'It has met with ...' is the present perfect and 'It is met with' is the present passive construction (used dramatically for a past event). //// Which is intended here? Probably the passive, reasoning from parallelism. But the phrasing is certainly ambiguous. //// I'm working on whether or not this is more suitable as an ELL question.
    – Edwin Ashworth
    Oct 9, 2017 at 16:15

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So, you have: "it’s met with utter confusion?"

So, let's get to it. Passive voice means the subject was acted upon. So, "it was met" means "it" was acted upon. That's passive voice. For active voice, it'd be "it met with utter confusion". Present perfect means that a thing started in the past but has current results. The previous poster was right. To use present perfect tense, you'd have to be clear, such as: "it has met (instead of it's) with utter confusion." Otherwise, that sentence could be read as "It is with utter confusion". Or, you could use past perfect: "it had met with utter confusion."

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