In the sentence "I gave Jane's dog to her." what is the case of the word Jane? The only example where I can see that a case might exist would be in the example of "whoever's" vs. "whomever's" where "whoever's" is used, which would indicate a subjective case. However, the words "my", "his", and "your" all seem to be more closely related to the oblique case forms of the pronouns.

  • I imagine the answer would hinge on whether or not you believe English has a possessive case, a genitive case, or neither. – choster Sep 7 '17 at 4:05
  • Isn't the "word" in question "Jane's", not "Jane"? The contraction "'s" doesn't expand into anything any longer, so isn't "Jane's" now a word in its own right, as the possessive case of "Jane"? – filistinist Sep 7 '17 at 4:13
  • There is no word Jane in the sentence; there is a word Jane's, which has an apostrophe in its spelling; but possessives are not contractions. As to case, English nouns have no case, but some people think all possessives are in the genitive case, just like some people think all reference to the future is in the future tense, even though English doesn't have a future tense. – John Lawler Sep 7 '17 at 5:12

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