Can someone tell me how to make a sentence with "none but"?
None but they/them is/are responsible for it.
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The difference between "they" and "them" is that "they" is referring to the subject, while "them" is referring to the object. An example taken from here:
They is used to refer to the subject of a clause. In other words, it usually represents the ‘doers’ of the action described by the verb, and usually refers back to two or more people or things that were mentioned earlier:
The children were kind. They gave me a present.
Them is used to refer to the object of a clause. In other words, it usually represents the group of people or things that have ‘experienced’ the action described by the verb, and refers back to two or more people or things that were mentioned earlier:
I’ve bought some apples. I’ll put them on the table.
The people who are responsible in your sentence is the subject.
They (subject) are responsible for it (object).
It should be "are" instead of "is" because "they" is a plural.
None but means only. [formal] (Collins Dictionary)
None but God will ever know what I suffered.
He whispered so softly that none but Julie heard him.
"They" is subject pronoun and "them" is object pronoun.
You should use "they" in the sentence as the subject.
Verb should agree with subject so "are" is used here.
None but they are responsible for it.
they or them??
"But" (after a negative, see below) is not a preposition, it is a conjunction. So: in the subject of a sentence you use "but they" for the same reason as you use "they".
is or are??
We say "they are" (plural) so probably you also want "None but they are". (Even if you normally say "None is".)
Oxford English Dictionary has all of their "none but" examples in the "conjunction" part of the page. ... with explanation:
C. 4. So after a negative, expressed or implied. (Here but regularly translates Latin nisi, and may be explained as ‘unless, if not’. It has been treated as a conjunction from the earliest times.)"
Quirk et al in ACGEL (6.5) actually address this problem in depth.
After indefinite pronouns (nobody, everyone, all etc) + but or except, usage is ... divided between subjective and objective case forms (depending [it would possibly seem] on whether but and except are considered conjunctions or prepositions [in this usage]):
There seems to be a tendency (at least among prescriptivists) to favour the subjective case after but used in 'subject territory' (example (a)), and the objective case after but used in 'object territory' (example (b)). In example (c), using 'I' would be considered a hypercorrect form:
(a).......[None]/Nobody but she can solve our problems.
(b).......[None]/Nobody can solve our problems but her.
(c).......Nobody said anything but/except me.
The objective form is the generally accepted form when the pronoun is in an object relation to the verb:
(d).......I want nobody but him [to come with us].
This is now over thirty years old, and the section starting 'There seems to be ...' was stating only 'a [seeming] tendency [at least among prescriptivists]'. I'd say that, with perhaps the rare exception, only (a') 'Nobody but her can solve our problems' would be used nowadays; some might consider this too informal for some purposes. I'd advise them to rewrite rather than choose (a), which sounds rarefied.
I'd also suggest that there is a strong case for considering 'nobody but' as unitary (compare 'just'), avoiding the perceived need to classify 'but' here.