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This is similar to a question I asked a few days ago.... Is there any difference in meaning between using the future perfect progressive and using the future simple:

Joe will be tired later because he will have been jogging for an hour

Joe will be tired later because he is going jogging for an hour

  • They're pretty much equivalent, but the second version carries more "immediacy" (perhaps he's just about to go jogging, or there's some other reason why the fact of him going jogging is somehow relevant to the current situation, as well as being likely to cause his expected tiredness later). The first version is more firmly focused on the anticipated future time - when he definitely will be tired (which may or may not be a good thing from the speaker's point of view, but that's when it will be relevant). – FumbleFingers Jul 5 '17 at 17:47
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I agree with the comment about immediacy, but I also get the sense that your first example has no implication about timing, while the second one does. When I hear, "He is going jogging for an hour" I have little doubt that he has not yet gone jogging. When I hear "He will have been jogging for an hour," however, I have no sense about the timing, and I would say that it's possible he's already out for the jog now.

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