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A recent story in the New York Times quotes somebody as writing:

I want the board to hear from Uber employees that it’s [sic] made the wrong decision ...

The [sic] here implies that this usage is incorrect. However, it's can be a contraction of both it is or it has, and expanding it out as the latter seems fine to me:

I want the board to hear from Uber employees that it has made the wrong decision ...

Is the NYT being hypercorrect?

  • Yes, it's used both ways. – Lawrence Jun 23 '17 at 0:59
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    Yes, that's a completely nonsensical “[sic]”. Perhaps the writer is British and finds the use of a singular pronoun to refer to a board of directors jarring—but that would be surprising in a NYT article. Even a British journalist would presumably know that the singular is perfectly expected in American English here, if (s)he works and writes for NYT. – Janus Bahs Jacquet Jun 23 '17 at 5:54
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    @Lawrence You might even say it's been used both ways. – choster Jun 23 '17 at 15:49
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    That [sic] no longer exists in the article dated, June 22, 2017: “I want the board to hear from Uber employees that it’s made the wrong decision in pressuring Travis to leave and that he should be reinstated in an operational role.” – Mari-Lou A May 25 '18 at 7:33
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    @RobbieGoodwin I'm not sure why you're calling this "mine", and I wouldn't have thought the NYT needed language lessons. By the way, you probably meant to say "its sole purpose" ;) – jpatokal May 26 '18 at 21:39
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The sic does not appear in the article as currently posted by the New York Times. The sentence is grammatical as stands, that is, as quoted. Why a sic was there is beyond the ken of most educated people.

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