If I write "I have absolutely nothing to do with him and never will." is that clear and grammatically correct in meaning that I will never have anything to do with him? Could it be interpreted/construed as a sort of double negative in the future with "I will never have nothing to do with him" or "I will never have absolutely nothing to do with him"?
Also, I believe "nothing to do with" and "to do with" are considered idiomatic. But if you say someone has "nothing to do with Buddhism and never will" the message seems clear that person will never have anything to do with Buddhism, I think.
I'm also aware of something called a negative polarity item. If you use a phrase such as "nothing.. at all", the "at all" indicates scope for negation that ends with the clause it's located in. Does using "absolutely" also indicate a negative polarity item?
When using "never will" without further elaboration, does it automatically imply/generate the positive meaning of the negation before? In this case "have absolutely nothing to do with" and "and never will" would generate/imply "never will have anything to do with"? Does the morpheme "nothing" change to "anything"? This seems true for when you say "X has nothing to do with Y and never will" but I'm not sure. The "and" also suggest continuity in meaning.
I found usages online with similar structure but that don't include the word "absolutely": "she has a story that doesn't belong to my world, has nothing to do with it and never will" http://www.shortstoryproject.com/biography-of-a-dress/
"It is entirely possible that these islands are part of a land reclamation project for agricultural or other civilian purposes which has nothing to do with military applications and never will." http://thediplomat.com/2017/05/north-koreas-mysterious-new-islands/
Does the meaning change if you use "ever" instead of "never"? Person A has absolutely nothing to do with Person B and ever will.