1

What is the difference between these three phrases:

  1. To have insider's knowledge about something.
  2. To have inside knowledge about something.
  3. To have insider knowledge about something.

closed as off-topic by NVZ, tchrist May 21 '17 at 3:21

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • They are all valid ways of saying much the same thing. In the case of number 3, I would hyphenate "insider-knowledge". – WS2 May 20 '17 at 7:37
  • I do have insider knowledge that they are different. – pjsofts May 20 '17 at 7:38
  • 1
    By all means enlighten us. But, if you know the answer, I am puzzled as to why you asked the question. Or, at least, why did you not include all your relevant information? – WS2 May 20 '17 at 9:46
0

In this context:
insider's - infers a group who posseses the knowledge.
inside - infers the ownership or possession of the knowledge.
insider - an individual within a group having the knowledge.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.