In the country where I currently reside it is quite common for written text to often miss out the word "to".
"It requires nearly all Americans get health insurance."
"It requires nearly all Americans to get health insurance."
I thought this was just one of the peculiarities of how the language has come to be used in my particular country (not the US), but recently I commented on an accidentally missed out "to" on a politics stack exchange answer. The poster of the answer was in agreement with me and happy to change it, but another commenter (Canadian by their profile, so possibly American English or maybe French native speaker) remarked that the sentence would be valid without the "to". Is the other commenter correct? Is missing out "to" like this considered valid grammar?
I am a native BE speaker myself, and it sounds, at the very least, lackadaisical to my ear.