Is it proper and/acceptable to say that Contemporary English only has Oblique and Possessive noun-cases?
*To my understanding, Oblique case is a noun that functions the cases other's cannot.
In Early Modern English, we have Oblique, Nominative, and Possessive: Thou (Ye,) Thee (you,) thy (your,) and (your's,) nominative, oblique, possessive, and possessive respectively. So such statements as "Be ye holy for I am holy," are clear as to say "Because I am holy, you are holy," being a statement of imputation of being, not a command to be a certain way.
But today, in contemporary English, we only have (unless I am misunderstanding oblique-case:) Oblique and Possessive cases: You, your, and your's.