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I'm wondering whether, in the following sentence, the verbal form is correct/idiomatic. It sounds right to my ear, but since I'm not a native speaker, I can't tell for sure.

After having been granted access to a site, the user can authenticate against the web server through Basic Authentication.

I think this is continuous present perfect in the passive voice (unless I'm mistaken), and it coincides with the fact that now that the user has been granted access, they can authenticate.

Can someone explain further, and correct the sentence if need be?

closed as off-topic by Edwin Ashworth, Drew, Glorfindel, user66974, Phil Sweet May 5 '17 at 1:49

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

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  • 1
    That is just fine. – Davo Apr 27 '17 at 12:52
  • The sentence is correct. You can also read the sentence as 'As the user now has access to a site, he (the user) can authenticate against the web server through basic authentication.' – Bhoomika Arora Apr 27 '17 at 13:15
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"Having been" is a case of the perfect participle.

The perfect participle indicates completed action. You form the perfect participle by putting the present participle having in front of the past participle.

For example:- having done, having finished, having read, having spoken

This would encompass your example, because "been" is the past participle of "be."

It is perfectly appropriate to use in your situation, since you are discussing a situation that is completed. The user can authenticate against the web server after the granting of access is complete.

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