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Which one is correct?

  • "I have not done(any verb1) or done(any verb2) something"
  • "I have not done(any verb1) or have not done(any verb2) something"
  • "I have not done(any verb1) or not done(any verb2) something"

where something part is related semantically only to second verb. I.e: "I have not showered or have not eaten breakfast"

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    You can use neither...nor to make parallel negatives in a sentence: I have neither showered nor eaten breakfast. – mahmud koya Apr 25 '17 at 13:34
  • @mahmudkoya yes, you are right, I could use it. Just was interested with specifically this situation. – Tien Nguyen Apr 25 '17 at 14:16
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"I have not showered or have not eaten breakfast."

This is not correct. Instead, you should say:

  1. I have not showered or eaten / had breakfast (yet).

  2. I have neither showered nor eaten / had breakfast (yet).

  3. I have not showered, nor have I eaten / had breakfast (yet).

Please observe the inversion between subject and predicate in 3.

  • Does it means that it is not important to what part of parallel verbs the subject is related (in this example - "breakfast"). For example consider the difference - "I have not liked or commented any post" where the subject (post) is related to both verbs. – Tien Nguyen Apr 25 '17 at 13:48

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