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The sentence is:

One of the limitations of liberalization is that it increases the vulnerability of (a/the/no article) domestic market to foreign shocks.

Am I free to use either 'the', 'a', or no article in this sentence? If one is better than the others, please explain why.

And is 'domestic market' together a noun or only 'domestic' is a noun?

marked as duplicate by Hot Licks, Skooba, Yosef Baskin, choster, tchrist Mar 28 '17 at 16:47

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One of the limitations of liberalization is that it increases the vulnerability of the domestic market to foreign shocks.

Domestic is an adjective.

Market is a noun.

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    Can I take liberties to use 'a' or no article ? Why only 'the' is used here ? – user227275 Mar 28 '17 at 2:44
  • You could, but it would sound awkward. – Ricky Mar 28 '17 at 5:27
  • @user227275: Most likely your cited example is talking about one particular domestic market. If it's a more general statement about the effects of "liberalization" in different markets across the world, the indefinite article could feasibly be used "naturally" (the vulnerability of a domestic market), but in that context most writers would simply pluralise markets anyway. Also note that singular with the definite article could feasibly be used even in that "general" case (referencing any one, treated as the one from whose perspective all other markets are "foreign"). – FumbleFingers Mar 28 '17 at 16:59

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