(1) That car should last you for ten years.

(2) That car should last you ten years.

I think these two mean the same thing.

In (1), the verb 'last' is clearly monotransitive.

How about the verb 'last' in (2)?

Is it monotransitive or ditransitive?


This question is clearly different from the earlier question. Not only is the verb involved different, but the construction following the verb is different (e.g, unlike in the earlier question, there's the optional "for" following the verb).

Moreover, none of the four answers to the earlier question even solve its own problem. The highest scoring answer has only two votes when the question itself has as many as six votes. So, I don't know how any of the four answers that don't even solve its own problem can possibly be said to solve the problem in my question that has a clearly distinct problem.

Now, I don't know what Edwin Ashworth means by "John Lawler's analysis". If by that Edwin means John's comments to one answer there, John did mention something about "commercial transaction verb", which does not include the verb 'last' in any way.

Finally, Edwin says in his comment, "On some analyses, it's debatable whether 'you' should be considered a DO." I don't think that saying that it's debatable is answering any question.

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    Possible duplicate of Is this a direct object or predicate complement? (see John Lawler's analysis). On some analyses, it's debatable whether 'you' should be considered a DO. – Edwin Ashworth Mar 10 '17 at 20:56
  • I would classify you as dative and (for) ten years as adverbial, no transitivity needed. – Anonym Mar 10 '17 at 23:36
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    @Anonym English has no dative, so I'm assuming you mean that you is an indirect object. It certainly plays the role of recipient, but indirect objects rarely appear in the absence of a direct object, and then the sense of the sentence provides the missing object. (I told you, for example). – deadrat Mar 11 '17 at 1:42
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    In (1) "last" is monotranstive with "you" as Od and the PP "for ten years" as temporal adjunct. By contrast, in (2) it is ditransitive with "you" as Oi and "ten years" as Od. – BillJ Mar 11 '17 at 8:13
  • @deadrat Well, yes, I do mean indirect object, but from a practical perspective I'm not sure what the difference is, since the indirect object seems always to play a dative role. – Anonym Mar 12 '17 at 21:18

Both forms are perfectly grammatical, both mean the same thing, and I think both share the same structure, too. It's just that "for" is spoken in one case, and implied in the other.

"ten years" doesn't become an extra object. It's an adverbial in both.

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